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Where Is It Preserved?
If the Bible is indeed preserved and not locked up in the originals, then where is it? If God intended for His people to actually be able to use His Word and proudly proclaim "the law of the LORD is perfect" (Psalm 19:7) then which version is correct? Or are they all correct?
Is there even a difference between the KJV and other versions? The answer is yes. No great study would be needed to come to the conclusion that the KJV is very different from other Bibles (there are literally thousands of differences). There are many instances where words, verses, and even entire portions of Scripture are omitted. Why are these parts of Scripture omitted? Because the translators use a different source. Every version since the KJV has used this different source.
The King James Bible was translated from a group of manuscripts called the Texus Receptus ("TR"). The TR has other names by which it is referred, but the matter at hand is not its name, rather its accuracy. Every other version has been translated from a group of manuscripts called the Minority Text which comes mainly from two old books (called codices). The names of these are the Codex Sinaiticus and the Codex Vaticanus. The Minority Text also has other names, but that's not important for our purposes (some say that the New King James Version comes from the TR - mostly from the people who publish it - but the New King James Version has over 100,000 different words than the KJV and in almost every case they match exactly with the other versions of the Bible).
Where did the translators get this Minority Text? The Codex Vaticanus was found on a shelf in the library of the pope. The Sinaiticus was found in a monastery at the foot of mount Sinai in the garbage can with other papers waiting to be burned. Both were found in the mid-1800s.
So here is the question, did God preserve His Word like He promised in the hands of His people (the KJV) or did His Word rest on the pope's shelf and in a garbage can? If the latter is to be believed, then you must admit that God made His Word disappear for 1500 years! If this were the case, then faith would have disappeared as well.
So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. 1
For the Bible says that "faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." If the Word of God was absent, then so was faith. Any student of religious history knows that this was not the case. Faith flourished in the hearts of men despite the Dark Ages and the attacks of Satan. Without the Bible present, there is no faith, without faith God is not pleased.
But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him. 2
So would God deprive man of the only thing that lets man please Him?
One might make the argument that the King James was the Word of God for the English speaking people until the newer versions appeared and put the Bible into a more modern form. The only problem with that theory is the fact that, as stated before, the text from which the KJV is translated is different than the text the other versions use. So it's not a matter of translation, but from what the Bible was translated.
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